Questions about Commander's Strike + Sneak Attack

Lord Zardoz

Explorer
Rule Text:
Commander’s Strike Warlord Attack 1
With a shout, you command an ally to attack.
At-Will ✦ Martial, Weapon
Standard Action Melee weapon
Target: One creature
Attack: An ally of your choice makes a melee basic attack against the target
Hit: Ally’s basic attack damage + your Intelligence modifier.

This is mostly a reality check for myself, so here are the questions, and reference characters at level 1.

Reference: Bob the Warlord: Int 17
Jack the Rogue: Str 14, Basic attack = 1d6+2 dmg; +5 vs AC. +2d6 Sneak Attack

1) Bob uses Commanders Strike for Jack to attack someone. The attack will be at +5 to hit, and inflict 1d6+5 Damage (Jacks normal basic melee attack plus Bob's Int bonus) or is it 1d6+3 (Jacks weapon + Bob's Int)?

2) Can Jack invoke the Sneak attack damage on the Commanders Strike if he has not yet done so that round? I would assume yes, but I could see a reasonable arguement in the text against it. The text says "An Attack you make" and it could be argued that the Warlord is making the attack, not the Rogue.

END COMMUNICATION
 

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1) Bob uses Commanders Strike for Jack to attack someone. The attack will be at +5 to hit, and inflict 1d6+5 Damage (Jacks normal basic melee attack plus Bob's Int bonus) or is it 1d6+3 (Jacks weapon + Bob's Int)?
1d6+5. But do note the attack uses Str.

2) Can Jack invoke the Sneak attack damage on the Commanders Strike if he has not yet done so that round?
Yes. Commander's strike causes Jack to make an attack. (On the other hand, if Bob happened to have the Sneak of Shadows feat, he would not be able to score his own sneak attack with Commander's strike.)
 

1) Bob uses Commanders Strike for Jack to attack someone. The attack will be at +5 to hit, and inflict 1d6+5 Damage (Jacks normal basic melee attack plus Bob's Int bonus) or is it 1d6+3 (Jacks weapon + Bob's Int)?
The damage will be 1d6+5. The Int is extra, added onto what you normally get for a basic attack.

2) Can Jack invoke the Sneak attack damage on the Commanders Strike if he has not yet done so that round?
Yes, if he has Combat Advantage.
 



Now, if Jack gets a +2 flaming weapon, and Bob a +3 vicious weapon, whose enhancement bonuses/special qualities apply?

Do we apply both? It is a power with the [Weapon] descriptor used by Bob, so it should apply his enhancement bonus to attack and damage, because, according to Page 225, that's what enhancement bonuses on weapons do. Jack is making a melee basic attack though, and his enhancement bonus applies to that because melee basic attack is a power with the weapon descriptor as well. From the fluff of the power it seems clear that Bob isn't attacking, and common sense indicates that we just use Jack's weapon's stats. Unfortunately, RAW, the Weapon descriptor on one of Bob's powers causes confusion.

5 Options (from most likely to least likely:
1. Apply just the rogue's weapon and assume the weapon keyword doesn't really apply to the power, it just is a reminder that the rogue's melee basic attack should have the weapon keyword.
2. Apply just the higher level of the two weapons (+3d12 on crit, because +3 vicious is higher level than +2 fire)
3. Apply whichever of the two weapon's abilities you want that round, but only 1 at a time.
4. Apply the highest of the two enhancement bonuses (because they don't stack). Apply all secondary effects (fire damage, +3d12 on crit, +2d6 fire on crit).
5. Apply just the warlord's weapon and assume the weapon keyword is an indication that you should use the Warlord's weapon bonuses rather than the ally's.

Which is it?
 

It's option 1, use the Rogue's weapon enhancements. The Weapon keyword is just intended as a reminder that the Warlord must be in melee range in order for the strike to work. This allows for a Warlord using a Reach weapon to make a Commander's Strike from 2 squares away. Remember, weapons add their bonus to attack and damage rolls made while using them. The warlord isn't rolling anything, but the Rogue is.
 

So a warlord with a sword can only do a commander's strike if he is adjacent to the person he is commanding? Wow. That makes it less appealing. What is the point of the "shout"ed command when it could simply be a tap on the shoulder?
 


So a warlord with a sword can only do a commander's strike if he is adjacent to the person he is commanding? Wow. That makes it less appealing. What is the point of the "shout"ed command when it could simply be a tap on the shoulder?

No. But both the warlord and the person he's commanding have to threaten the same target. So they can be on the opposite sides of the same target.

The wording of Commander's Strike is so the Warlord can't be sitting on the opposite side of the battle.
 

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